View Full Version : y did O'brien give the ball to dunleavy? i don't understand.

01-12-2009, 02:21 AM
i don't understand y in the world did O'brien run a play for Dunleavy after Granger just hit the 3 for the pacers to go up by 1? you must get the ball to Danny Granger, instead he gives it to Dunleavy for him to shoot the ball wide left not even grazinnnnnnnnnnnnnnnng the rim. Someone please explain why this O'brien guy does not know he must get the ball to Granger in clutch situations.... or against the Lakers where he puts Granger on kobe when he had 5 fouls and to top things off he runs a play at the end of the game that puts the ball in Jeff Fosters hand?

Roaming Gnome
01-12-2009, 02:32 AM
This doesn't deserve it's own thread. Use the post game thread!